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Self Assessment B.
1. Complete the Questions
The 30 questions that follow must be answered before submitting your assessment, there is
ONE
correct answer per question. You are required to achieve a
pass rate of 80%.
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3.
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Q1
What is money laundering?
1. The washing of someone’s money to make it clean
2. The process by which criminals attempt to hide and disguise their criminal assets
3. A modern-day term for fencing stolen goods
4. The process by which criminal attempt to hide and convert their criminal cash
Q2
What is the purpose of money laundering?
1. To allow criminals to use their criminally derived assets without fear of detection and prosecution
2. To make criminal money clean before it enters the economy
3. To avoid non-legal tender from flooding the financial markets
4. To allow a criminal to buy a piece of art without having to explain their source of wealth
Q3
What is terrorist financing?
1. Providing financial assistance in support of the prevention of terrorism
2. The funding or financing of acts of terrorism and any costs associated to such
3. Providing financial assistance to the victims and families of terrorist attacks
4. Evading international sanctions orders
Q4
Can works of art be used to launder money or fund terrorism?
1. Yes
2. No
Q5
How much money is estimated to be laundered through the UK each year?
1. Between £1.6 and £4 trillion
2. Over £4 trillion
3. £50 billion
4. Over £100 billion
Q6
What brought AMP’s under the money laundering regulations in the UK?
1. The Money Laundering (and Terrorist Financing) Regulations 2019
2. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002
3. The Terrorism Act 2000
4. The Sanctions and AML Act 2018
Q7
What required the whole of the EU AMP’s to comply with money laundering obligations?
1. The Money Laundering (and Terrorist Financing) Regulations 2019
2. The 4
th
Money Laundering Directive
3. The 5
th
Money Laundering Directive
4. The 6
th
Money Laundering Directive
Q8
Which of these are offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
1. Concealing, disguising, converting or transferring criminal property
2. Becoming involved in the arrangements relating to criminal property
3. The acquisition, use or possession of criminal property
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
Q9
What is a predicate offence to money laundering?
1. The act of laundering money
2. The underlying offence that created the proceeds of crime in the first place
3. The process by which criminal assets are confiscated by the court
4. The act of integrating criminal assets into society
Q10
What is due diligence?
1. The process by which AMPs ascertain who they are dealing with
2. Verifying someone’s identity
3. Establishing the legal right to buy/sell a piece of art
4. Confirming the source of wealth/funds associated to the buying of a piece of art
5. All of the above
Q11
Is there a difference between identifying and verifying someone’s identity?
1. Yes
2. No
Q12
What is a Politically Exposed Person?
1. An individual who has been entrusted with a prominent public function
2. A close associate of an individual who has been entrusted with a prominent public function
3. A family member of an individual who has been entrusted with a prominent public function
4. All of the above
Q13
What level of risk should a PEP be given?
1. It depends on why they are a PEP
2. It will vary given the location of the PEP
3. Always high risk
4. Medium to High risk
Q14
What is the inherent risk of doing business with a PEP?
1. They may commit fraud
2. We do not want to do business with government officials
3. Their role may have exposed them to bribery, the proceeds of which they pass to us
4. There is no more risk than dealing with any other type of customer
Q15
Which of these are predicate offences to money laundering?
1. Fraud and bribery
2. Embezzlement and tax evasion
3. Theft and forgery
4. All of the above
Q16
What are the three levels of due diligence that can be applied to a customer?
1. Simplified, standard and enhanced
2. Low, medium and high
3. Standard, enhanced and high
4. Exempt, standard and enhanced
Q17
If a customer asked a gallery to inflate the price of a painting on the invoice compared to what was actually paid for it, would this be?
1. Fraud by false representation
2. Fraud by failing to disclose
3. Fraud by abuse of position of trust
4. Obtaining services dishonestly
Q18
What three elements are usually required to be present for fraud to be committed?
1. Faith, hope and charity
2. Pressure, rationalization and opportunity
3. Method, control and access
4. Pressure, access and control
Q19
Broadly speaking, what is the purpose of transaction monitoring?
1. To help an AMP understand its customer better
2. So an AMP can monitor which kind of customer buys what kind of art
3. To assist an AMP to identify suspicious or unusual activity
4. Ensuring money goes to the bank account to which it was intended following a sale
Q20
Under UK law, under which 3 criteria does an AMP have to make a disclosure to the authorities?
1. When it has knowledge, suspicion or reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering
2. When it has knowledge, an admission and proof of money laundering
3. When it is told by another AMP that it has knowledge and proof of money laundering
4. When is has reasonable grounds, evidence and an admission of guilt
Q21
Is reasonable grounds an objective or subjective test?
1. Objective
2. Subjective
Q22
What is the maximum penalty for money laundering?
1. 10 years in prison
2. 14 years in prison and an unlimited fine
3. 10 years in prison or an unlimited fine
4. 14 years in prison
Q23
What is the maximum penalty for tipping off?
1. 5 years in prison
2. 14 years in prison and an unlimited fine
3. 2 years in prison or an unlimited fine
4. 2 years in prison
Q24
What is the maximum penalty for failure to report knowledge, suspicion or reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering?
1. 5 years in prison
2. 14 years in prison and an unlimited fine
3. 5 years in prison or an unlimited fine
4. 2 years in prison
Q25
To whom is knowledge, suspicion or reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering reported to in the UK?
1. BAMF
2. The Financial Conduct Authority
3. The Serious Fraud Office
4. The National Crime Agency
Q26
What is a DAML?
1. Defence Against Money Laundering
2. Directive Against Money Laundering
3. Direction Against Money Laundering
4. Disclosure Against Money Laundering
Q27
What is a UBO?
1. The legal entity that ultimately benefits from an organization
2. The natural person that is the ultimate beneficial owner of a company
3. The underlying beneficiary occupant of a company
4. The legal or natural person who is the ultimate buyer of the company
Q28
If a purchase of art was a Trust, would CDD still be required on the Trust?
1. No. Where a trust is involved no CDD is required.
2. Yes, because Trusts are not regulated
3. Yes, CDD must run through the entire transaction, even through and beyond a trust
4. No, CDD would only have to be conducted on actual people
Q29
Other than for compliance with the Data Protection Act why is data protection important?
1. Because customers like us to protect their data
2. Because we will be fined if we lose the data
3. Because a loss of customer data can lead to money laundering
4. Because data protection is a predicate offence to money laundering
Q30
We seem to be aligned to working the same way as banks do, is this right?
1. Yes, it is – AMP’s are now required to follow the same rules as the banks
2. No, AMP’s are required to implement a lower level of rules than banks
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